Having just returned from Cyprus to view properties, I am a little confused as to what happened whilst out there. Having viewed a suitable apartment (re-sale) we promptly placed a deposit, to take it off the market, however when our solicitor made a request for the necessary details, the seller could not prove that he was the legal owner, as he never recorded the purchase with the land registary some twenty years ago. However the seller seemed determined that he could come up with the required documents by asking the developer (whom he allegedly purchased from) to confirm that he was sold the property all those years ago. However my solicitor advised that we pull out of the purchase as the developer had refused to confirm this. But I am curious now, had the developer agreed to confirm that he had sold the property to the alleged owner , would this be sufficient to make a legal contract/sale ? and secondly how does the seller now prove that he is the legitimate owner, without the written agreement from the developer ?
Regards Charlie