Robin Hood wrote:1) So, am I correct in saying that repayment is required to keep the books straight but that the bank actually has no obligation or liability to repay that amount to another physical entity? i.e. a person, company or another bank.
This is not how I understand it. When the created money leaves the bank - either as a transfer to another bank account or if I draw it as cash, then the lending bank is liable. If it is a transfer to another bank account then the liability is between the lending bank and the bank it is transferred to - via the 'clearing' system. So for example if the only transaction between Lloyds bank and Barclays on a given day is the transfer of £500 of lent (created by Lloyds) money from a Lloyds customers to a Barclay's customer, then Lloyds bank reserve account with central bank deceases by £500 and Barclay's increases by £ 500. If this means Lloyds does not have enough money in its reserve account to meet all that days clearing liabilities with other banks, then they must borrow (or buy in exchange for assets) such reserve account money either from other banks that have excess or from the central bank itself. So Lloyds does have a liability when it creates the £500 loan - at least as I understand it. Similar if I draw the £500 in cash. Ultimately Lloyds has to buy such cash from the central bank at face value. If it does not already have £500 on hand in cash to give to me it must buy it from the central bank for £500.
From what I have read from credible sources - these then is the real practical limit on how much money a bank can create and lend (not capital adequacy ratios) - how much liquidity it has in it's central bank reserve account used to 'clear' payments between itself and other banks on a daily basis. What happened post 2008 is banks with excess liquidity in their reserve accounts stop lending it to other banks with too little in their theirs, meaning they then has no option but to buy or borrow more reserve account money from the central bank.
Robin Hood wrote:2) Am I also correct in saying If the loan amount is not repaid the amount of new money remains in circulation ad infinitum. In which case in Law the bank has committed a crime? It has ‘printed’ currency which is specifically prohibited under the Bank Charter Act of 1844.
Am less sure about this. I think money created by giving credit to someone who then does not pay back that loan, remains on the lending banks books / accounts until such time as they 'write it down' - which as I understand it is them effectively having to themselves pay back the money they created from their own funds, in order for it to be destroyed and cease to exist again.
Banks can create money from nothing by giving loans but only for 'other people'. They can not create money for themselves in this way - that really would be fraud and a licensee to print money. They do therefore carry risk when they create money for other people as ledger entries. The risk is that the money does not get repaid and they in turn become liable for it and they can not just 'ledger entry' it back out of existence. They have to actually pay for it with their own money.