erolz66 wrote:Jerry wrote:People usually sell a house and buy another with a view to improving their lives or changing jobs. I don't know what expenses are involved in selling in the north but someone moving house will have less than 60% - 70% of the sale price with which to buy. Consequently the only time these properties would come on the market would be when the occupier passes away and that could involve further complications if the property is occupied by other generations of the family. If the property is willed to other family members living there would the tax be payable? Your situation may be straightforward, I doubt many others are.
It really is not that complicated. I bought a property on land that was disputed. It was cheaper than if it had been on land that was not disputed. I estimate in the region of 20% cheaper but lets say it was 30% to keep things simple. If I want to sell it for whatever reason, then if I sell it as is (disputed) I will get X. If I sell it as undisputed at X + 30% and have to pay a 30% sales tax , I am left with X. My ability therefore to be able to afford to sell my house is unchanged , with or without the sales tax. It makes no difference. Of course the tax would pass down generations until it is paid and this represents no problem at all. If the state has borrowed money in lieu of the tax being paid, in order to pay out compensation before it is paid, then any cost of this state borrowing will be offset by natural increase in property value over time. Sometimes it does feel like you are looking for excuses as to why such things could not work ?Jerry wrote:Your last sentence is clutching at spanners, a component state implies that there has been agreement so of course you would be recognised as undisputed freeholder.
I assumed we were talking about this proposed 'tax' under either senario - with a settlement or without. If the TRNC was to introduce such a thing before a settlement. do you think the RoC would recognise the undisputed ownership of current users where the pre 74 owner had been compensated by the IPC (70%) and the current user (30%) or not ? Does it recognise such today where the compensation paid has all come from the IPC ?
Not excuses, I'm being realistic. So, you have sold your house and have 70% or less than to buy another. Usually people expect to sell and move "up" not down. And who will fund this deferred tax, is that the same Turkey that wants to save itself 30-40% of the compensation?
The "without a settlement" scenario is of little consequence, do you care NOW if your title is recognised by the ROC, why should contributing 30% and subsequently selling concern the ROC as things stand. With regard to title the fact that compensation has been paid would obviously be taken into account in the event of a settlement.