GreekIslandGirl wrote:Somewhere in your arrogant brain, a numbskull operator is telling you that your opinion is so right that nothing should make you give it up ...
The irony here is GiG that there is simply NO evidence that I could give that would ever convince you that YOU were simply wrong. If I were to post a poll on forums where British people participated asking do you consider the statement "the "N" word was still routinely used less than 20 years ago in the UK" and the result of that poll was to overwhelming show that people considered it 'not true' you would just dismiss the result as irrelevant, because you have NO INTEREST in the objective factual reality, your ONLY interest is in insisting your opinion is right DESPITE any and all evidence. Even if I found a text that stated "by the 1980's in the UK the word nigger was not routinely used" you would just say that says nothing about the state in 1994 onwards. If I found one that said ""by 1994 and later in the UK the word nigger was not routinely used" , you would just dismiss the source in one way or another. That is my point.
There is an objective reality as to when use of the word nigger in the UK to refer to a black person went from normal , regular , common , acceptable (routine) every day usage to its current state today where such usage is NOT normal, regular, common, acceptable (routine). You have NO interest in the actual reality of when this transition occurred. Your ONLY interest is in trying to maintain that 1994 and later is the period when this transition occurred REGARDLESS of any evidence presented.
And to prove this point I will now provide you with more evidence, that you will simply ignore, dismiss and poo poo one way or another. Before we look at this evidence let us not forget that the only evidence YOU have provided to date to support your claim is two distortions of what is said in the Wikipedia article , one of which is a distortion so large it beggars belief and the assertion that you know people who still routinely used the word in reference to black people today.
This is a graph produced using google's ngram project. It basically shows the frequency of the occurrences of the word nigger and niggers in books scanned by Google in the data set "British English 2009" - which is defined as "Books predominantly in the English language that were published in Great Britain." between 1900 and 2008. The 'transition period' from when the word went from normal , regular , common , acceptable (routine) usage to not normal , regular , common , acceptable (routine) can clearly be seen. It is essentially from the beginning of the 1970's to the mid 1970's. From around 1975 to 2008 there is little change in the frequency of word. I assert that this strongly indicates that the real objective time period from when the word transitioned from normal, regular, common, acceptable, routine usage to its current usage today is between 1970 and 1975 and not as you claimed from 1994 onwards.
So go ahead, make my day, as Dirty Harry famously said, and just show (again) that you have NO interest in the actual reality of when this transition occurred and your ONLY interest is in trying to show that "your opinion is so right that nothing should make you give it up". Dismiss this evidence and tell me that I "do not actually understand (a) what evidence is and (b) how to critically evaluate the evidence others present." and then start talking about how I am a Turk and thus display the characteristics of one , as defined by you - for this is surely what you will do and in doing so you will in fact just yet again demonstrate my point.