Kikapu wrote:One thing the RoC can do if they wish to do so, is to buy the GCs land in the north directly from the GCs who may want to sell it to Turkey with the IPC. If the IPC is offering today's depressed land prices in the north to the GCs, then the RoC can offer them 10% premium of the IPC's offer and buy the land themselves. The only reason the GCs would go to the IPC is either to get their land back or to get money from Turkey for not being able to use their land. As for selling it, why not sell it to the RoC or to any other GC in the RoC. I would think a move like this would put the IPC out of business in a hurry.
erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
erolz3 wrote:Sotos wrote:Erol you don't know what the hell you are talking about. There are rules and laws of what you can sell, to whom you can sell, how much you can sell and what procedure you have to follow in order to make the sale. This is the case in all real countries like Cyprus. Maybe you don't know this because you live in some pseudo state. So I don't blame you.
Yes there are rules and regulations for registering a sale. However these can not be used to stop people from doing what they wish with their property for some political agenda. To use them in that way would be to use them to deny indivduals rights to do with their property as they wish.
As for your jibes about not knowing about rules and regulations for registering and buying and selling property, I was born in the UK and lived there for 35+ years. I know very well how a real country handles property sales and I know how the RoC handles them, with the 100,000s of properties sold without deeds being issued yet to people 10s of years after the sale. I know of the people in the legitimate RoC who bought property only to find it mortgaged by the developer and builder. I would not get on your high horse about how 'real countires' handle property sales because the RoC mess is nothing to be shouting about and thats before yopu even look at disputed property as a result of 74.
Kikapu wrote:erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
Erol, does the IPC have a direct authority from the TC owner of his land in the south to be given to a GC without the TC owner signing the sale of his land himself with the Land Registry in the RoC. How does the RoC know that the TC is selling his land on his own free will and not at the point of a gun to his head.?? Or is it the case of the "trnc" that does not exist according to the ECHR has the TCs deeds for his land in the south for the illegal exchange that was made for the GC land in the north is who is giving the TCs land to the GC and not the TC owner himself.??
Viewpoint wrote:Kikapu wrote:erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
Erol, does the IPC have a direct authority from the TC owner of his land in the south to be given to a GC without the TC owner signing the sale of his land himself with the Land Registry in the RoC. How does the RoC know that the TC is selling his land on his own free will and not at the point of a gun to his head.?? Or is it the case of the "trnc" that does not exist according to the ECHR has the TCs deeds for his land in the south for the illegal exchange that was made for the GC land in the north is who is giving the TCs land to the GC and not the TC owner himself.??
Legal experts have devised a way of getting owners to sign over their rights to the property in question. These documents cannot be contested by the south at a latter stage as all parties are in full agreement to the transaction.
erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
Kikapu wrote:Viewpoint wrote:Kikapu wrote:erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
Erol, does the IPC have a direct authority from the TC owner of his land in the south to be given to a GC without the TC owner signing the sale of his land himself with the Land Registry in the RoC. How does the RoC know that the TC is selling his land on his own free will and not at the point of a gun to his head.?? Or is it the case of the "trnc" that does not exist according to the ECHR has the TCs deeds for his land in the south for the illegal exchange that was made for the GC land in the north is who is giving the TCs land to the GC and not the TC owner himself.??
Legal experts have devised a way of getting owners to sign over their rights to the property in question. These documents cannot be contested by the south at a latter stage as all parties are in full agreement to the transaction.
They may be "legal" with and in the "trnc", which does not exists as far as the ECHR and the RoC is concerned, so why would such agreements be recognised by the RoC at later date..?? What if they tell you, "sorry pal, but these agreements does not meet the RoC's regulations and rules". Then what.?
Viewpoint wrote:Kikapu wrote:Viewpoint wrote:Kikapu wrote:erolz3 wrote:Get Real! wrote:erolz3 wrote:A GC goes to the IPC. He agrees a sum in cash for denial of use of his property and he agrees and exchange of property for the property itself, with him forgoing his property in the North and takin instead some in the South.
And why should this GC go to the Turkish “IPC” to facilitate Turkey’s partition?
It has already happend. This is a real example. The plain and simple truth is if the RoC were to stop this perosn enjoying their use of the property in the south that the IPC awarded them (and that includes selling it) then they will simply end up in front of the ECHR and loose.
Erol, does the IPC have a direct authority from the TC owner of his land in the south to be given to a GC without the TC owner signing the sale of his land himself with the Land Registry in the RoC. How does the RoC know that the TC is selling his land on his own free will and not at the point of a gun to his head.?? Or is it the case of the "trnc" that does not exist according to the ECHR has the TCs deeds for his land in the south for the illegal exchange that was made for the GC land in the north is who is giving the TCs land to the GC and not the TC owner himself.??
Legal experts have devised a way of getting owners to sign over their rights to the property in question. These documents cannot be contested by the south at a latter stage as all parties are in full agreement to the transaction.
They may be "legal" with and in the "trnc", which does not exists as far as the ECHR and the RoC is concerned, so why would such agreements be recognised by the RoC at later date..?? What if they tell you, "sorry pal, but these agreements does not meet the RoC's regulations and rules". Then what.?
Man you obvioulsy have no confidence these are international experts who contributed to the documentation people sign at the IPC, once lodged with the south they will not be able to refuse them. Please also consider all the buying and selling of land that has gone on in the TRNC over the past 36 years, so you think they will all be null and void? No the transactions especially on undiputed land will have to be accepted into the overall system if ever a solution is found.
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