CopperLine wrote:Get Real
First, you ask that someone else prove a negative '.... another country has not resulted in ...' Forget it. You can assume what you like. Should I assume unless you prove otherwise, that you are not an idiot ? Or that you are not rational ? Or that you are not X Y Z ?
Second, the quotation you repeat from Clemenceau is exactly to re-conflate the distinction that I had made. Ottoman and Turk are NOT and were NOT synonymous. In using the term 'Turk' Clemenceau was NOT referring to the Republic of Turkey.
Since Clemenceau viewed France as the definition and measure of civilisation any and all empires would, on his account, be condemned as resulting in decline of material prosperity etc.
Allowing common sense to prevail, we can safely assume that Clemenceau made this statement at some stage during his last six years of his life… that is between the year 1923 when the Ottoman remnants became “Turkey” under the Treaty of Lausanne, and his death in 1929.
We can also safely assume that having served as the French PM on two occasions, the now veteran politician Clemenceau would have no doubt played an important role along with others, in the Treaty of Lausanne so it’s understandable to make a further safe assumption that for a man like Clemenceau the words “Ottomans” and “Turkey” referred to the same people albeit under a new packaging.
Having said that, my question is…
Almost 80 years on after his death, are we able to DISCREDIT Georges Clemenceau’s statement?