The violation of logic here says Germany expanded by 75% after the collapse of USSR.
What an expansionist state!
Pyrpolizer wrote:The violation of logic here says Germany expanded by 75% after the collapse of USSR.
What an expansionist state!
erolz wrote:Kifeas wrote:
Indeed one can rightfully claim that Turkey of present and the last few decades shows very strong signs of an expansionist country! Setting aside the fact that it invaded and continues to occupy north Cyprus for purely expansionist and geo-strategic reasons -and not those it claimed to have once existed, or still do; it shows expansionist trades by the way it reacts to the RoC's right to exploit its continental shelf (even the one south of Cyprus;) by the way it reacts to Greece’s right to expand its territorial waters in the Aegean, to the internationally recognised by treaties 12 miles; and by the way it "barks" and goes about the situation in Northern Iraq and the oil reserves in it, using the minority Turkmen population there as a stepping stone.
Back to your allegory, do you mean to say that had the 1821 Greek revolution successfully liberated the whole of today's Greece, instantaneously (all at once,) instead of only a small part first (presumably due to lack of means or due to the existence of a very powerful ottoman colonial force) and then a gradual liberation of more territories in the course of time; that this would not have "qualified" Greece as an expansionist country? Is the criterion only the scope of time it took, since the first section was liberated and gained its independence; or is it whether one country legitimately increased its territory due the existence of majority ethnic populations, besides the existence of whatever historical rights?
As far as I know, expansionism, as the term is used in international politics and law, has a rather negative connotation! It is usually -if not always, associated with colonialism and /or imperialism, i.e. the illegitimate expansion of one country into areas that legitimately should belong to another country or nation. "Expansionism" of one country always occurs in the illegitimate expense of another country or nation! To whose expense did Greece "illegitimately" expand its territories over the years? Wasn’t it in the expense of the former Ottoman Empire? Was the Ottoman Empire a legitimate possessor those primarily Greek populated areas, or in fact it was the opposite? Was it an illegitimate expansionism on the part of Greece, or it was the bringing to an end of an already existing illegitimate expansionism by a then existing colonial empire? What does time, i.e. the scope of years during which this end was brought, has to do in this equation?
Now that's waffle
Indeed one can rightfully claim that Turkey of present and the last few decades shows very strong signs of an expansionist country! Setting aside the fact that it invaded and continues to occupy north Cyprus for purely expansionist and geo-strategic reasons -and not those it claimed to have once existed, or still do; it shows expansionist trades by the way it reacts to the RoC's right to exploit its continental shelf (even the one south of Cyprus;) by the way it reacts to Greece’s right to expand its territorial waters in the Aegean, to the internationally recognised by treaties 12 miles; and by the way it "barks" and goes about the situation in Northern Iraq and the oil reserves in it, using the minority Turkmen population there as a stepping stone.
Back to your allegory, do you mean to say that had the 1821 Greek revolution successfully liberated the whole of today's Greece, instantaneously (all at once,) instead of only a small part first (presumably due to lack of means or due to the existence of a very powerful ottoman colonial force) and then a gradual liberation of more territories in the course of time; that this would not have "qualified" Greece as an expansionist country? Is the criterion only the scope of time it took, since the first section was liberated and gained its independence; or is it whether one country legitimately increased its territory due the existence of majority ethnic populations, besides the existence of whatever historical rights?
As far as I know, expansionism, as the term is used in international politics and law, has a rather negative connotation! It is usually -if not always, associated with colonialism and /or imperialism, i.e. the illegitimate expansion of one country into areas that legitimately should belong to another country or nation. "Expansionism" of one country always occurs in the illegitimate expense of another country or nation! To whose expense did Greece "illegitimately" expand its territories over the years? Wasn’t it in the expense of the former Ottoman Empire? Was the Ottoman Empire a legitimate possessor those primarily Greek populated areas, or in fact it was the opposite? Was it an illegitimate expansionism on the part of Greece, or it was the bringing to an end of an already existing illegitimate expansionism by a then existing colonial empire? What does time, i.e. the scope of years during which this end was brought, has to do in this equation?
the_snake_and_the_crane wrote: No thats a very elaborate answer to your post Erolz.
erolz wrote:Pyrpolizer wrote:The violation of logic here says Germany expanded by 75% after the collapse of USSR.
What an expansionist state!
Quite apart from your woefully inaccurate figure of 75% the simple fact is that the Federal Republic of Germany DID expand following the incorporation of the German Democratic Republic into itself.
What would be a violation of logic and all sense and reason would be the idea that the FRG could incorporate the former GDR WITHOUT expanding.
Pyrpolizer wrote:
What violates every logic is
a)your claim than the FRG "expanded" and not the DDR, given the fact that Germany is and was composed of federal states.
b)That the unification of Germany which was ONE COUNTRY on the first place was an "expansion"
Pyrpolizer wrote:c)that the expansion (without quotation marks) for which we are talking about in this topic refers to acquiring foreign lands by totally alien people, the subordination or ethnic cleansing of locals etc., and NOT your oversimplistic definition of JUST growing larger.
the_snake_and_the_crane wrote:Zan showing his lack of historical knowledge again. Alexander the Great was way after the Mycaenean, Achaen and Ionian settlements along the western coast of Asia Minor and the Black Sea.
Infact, Zan reminds me of that episode of Only Fools And Horses were Del Boy sets up a tour of 'Ethnic London' and claims that the area of Elephant And Castle in South London got its name because Richard the Lionheart set up his castle there and fought back the emperor Hadrian and his army of elephants.
Full of bullshit to try and con people.
erolz wrote:From the end of WW2 the previously unitary germany was divided in to two seperate states in every physical and legal sense possible to imagine. Before this neither the FGR or the DDR existed. With renuification the former DDR was legaly incorporated INTO the FGR and what existed afterwards was an EXPANDED FGR. It is all very plain and simple really, just try taking it in slow steps and have a rest inbetween them and you might just get it.
erolz wrote:Exactly my point. YOU may well and frequently do talk about expansion without qualifiaction or quotation marks and mean such a narrow , massively subjective and subject to point of view meaning for the word but such unqualifed use in this way is on the whole little more than rhetoric compared to the simple objective defination I give.
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 0 guests