by Saint Jimmy » Tue Feb 08, 2005 7:28 am
Turkcyp,
your post above seems quite logical to me, with a couple of exceptions.
One is that I think you are over-simplifying the decision-making process to a dangerous extent. You claim it is always and invariably rational, and that it's the basis for the function of the whole capitalist system. My view is that decision-making is often not as rational as one would think, especially in the sense that 'rational' is used in economic theory. For instance, if the States want to push Turkey's candidacy for their own interests, they would do it through the United Kingdom (and maybe through Aznar's Spain, as long as he was in power). And the United Kingdom, in turn, following its God-knows-how-old policy of collaborating with the USA, would push for it, regardless of whether it is in the best interests of the EU (assuming it is not blatantly against these interests), much like what happened with the RoC's accession course and Greece. If the RoC's accession was not in favour of the interests of the EU, would Greece have a different agenda on the issue?
And two, is that you seem to be arguing in favor of Turkey being treated like any other EU member state, ignoring the fact that, in many respects... Turkey is not like any other member state! Maybe, then, the EU is genuinely worried about, say, Turkey's impoverished population masses flooding the German market, in search of work. Maybe it's not all rhetoric, after all. The RoC didn't want to have the acquis communautaire suspended in the north, for obvious reasons! However, the government swallowed this settlement, because the EU had to find a solution to this problem that they faced (a divided acceding country). Here, it's also true that no other country in the EU has such a condition: that the acquis is suspended in part of its territory. Would that mean that the RoC shouldn't accept the condition, because it saw it as being double-standards?